
Set V of our CSE332 Industry Ethics and Legal Issues MCQs covers Indian cyber law: the Information Technology Act, 2000, the big 2008 amendment, and the basics of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.
Section numbers are a favourite in exams, so this set asks about the ones you are most likely to see, such as 43, 66, 66C, 66D, 66E, 67 and 72. We rewrote it in October 2026 and added the DPDP Act, which the old set did not cover at all.
How to use this set: pick an option for each question. You will see straight away whether it is right, with a short note on why. There are 15 questions.
What this set covers
- Purpose and background of the IT Act 2000
- Section 43 (civil) vs Section 66 (criminal)
- Identity theft, impersonation, privacy and obscenity: 66C, 66D, 66E, 67
- Digital and electronic signatures, Certifying Authorities
- CERT-In and intermediary safe harbour
- DPDP Act 2023: Data Principal, Data Fiduciary and the Board
Industry Ethics and Legal Issues MCQs with answers and explanations
Q1. The Information Technology Act, 2000 was mainly based on which model law?
a) UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce
b) The US Patriot Act
c) The Berne Convention
d) The EU GDPR
Q2. Section 43 of the IT Act deals with:
a) Cyber terrorism
b) Penalty and compensation for damage to a computer or computer system, such as unauthorised access or introducing a virus
c) Publishing obscene content
d) Powers of the Controller
Q3. What turns an act listed in Section 43 into an offence under Section 66?
a) Doing it on a weekend
b) Doing it dishonestly or fraudulently
c) Doing it from outside India
d) Using a mobile phone
Q4. Someone logs into your email using your stolen password and sends messages as you. This is punishable as identity theft under:
a) Section 66C
b) Section 66F
c) Section 72
d) Section 67
Q5. A fraudster pretends to be a bank officer on a phone call and in a fake app to trick people into sharing OTPs. The specific offence of cheating by personation using a computer resource is:
a) Section 43
b) Section 66B
c) Section 66D
d) Section 66E
Q6. Capturing or sharing images of a person's private area without consent is punishable under:
a) Section 66E
b) Section 79
c) Section 66C
d) Section 70
Q7. Publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form is an offence under:
a) Section 72
b) Section 65
c) Section 43
d) Section 67
Q8. Section 72 of the IT Act punishes:
a) Tampering with source code
b) Cyber terrorism
c) Breach of confidentiality and privacy by a person who got access to information under powers given by the Act
d) Sending spam emails
Q9. Section 66A of the IT Act, which punished sending "offensive" messages, was struck down by the Supreme Court in:
a) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
b) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
Q10. Under the original IT Act, a digital signature is created using:
a) An asymmetric crypto system and a hash function
b) A scanned image of a handwritten signature
c) A simple password
d) A one-time password sent by SMS
Q11. Who licenses and regulates Certifying Authorities that issue digital signature certificates in India?
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) SEBI
c) Controller of Certifying Authorities
d) Election Commission
Q12. CERT-In, the national agency for responding to cyber security incidents, gets its legal role under which section of the IT Act?
a) Section 66
b) Section 67
c) Section 70B
d) Section 43
Q13. Section 79 of the IT Act gives intermediaries such as social media platforms:
a) Conditional protection from liability for third-party content if they follow due diligence
b) Ownership of all user content
c) A licence to sell user data
d) Power to arrest users
Q14. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the person to whom personal data relates is called the:
a) Data Processor
b) Data Fiduciary
c) Consent Manager
d) Data Principal
Q15. Which body is set up under the DPDP Act, 2023 to inquire into breaches and impose penalties?
a) Controller of Certifying Authorities
b) National Cyber Crime Bureau
c) CERT-In
d) Data Protection Board of India
Quick revision notes
- IT Act 2000 is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on E-Commerce. The 2008 amendment added 66A to 66F, 67A, 67B and electronic signatures.
- Section 43 = civil penalty and compensation; Section 66 = the same acts done dishonestly or fraudulently (crime).
- 66C identity theft, 66D cheating by personation, 66E privacy violation, 66F cyber terrorism, 67 obscene material, 72 breach of confidentiality.
- 66A was struck down in Shreya Singhal (2015). 70B = CERT-In. 79 = intermediary safe harbour.
- DPDP Act 2023: Data Principal (you), Data Fiduciary (the organisation), Data Protection Board of India, penalties up to ₹250 crore.
Frequently asked questions
What is the difference between Section 43 and Section 66 of the IT Act?
Both deal with the same kinds of acts, such as unauthorised access or spreading a virus. Section 43 makes the person pay compensation to the victim. Section 66 makes it a criminal offence when it is done dishonestly or fraudulently.
Is Section 66A still in force?
No. The Supreme Court struck it down in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India in 2015 for being vague and against free speech, so no one can be prosecuted under it.
Does the DPDP Act replace the IT Act?
No. The IT Act still covers cyber crimes, electronic records and signatures. The DPDP Act is a separate law focused on how organisations collect and process personal data.
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Frequently asked questions
What does CSE332 Industry Ethics and Legal Issues cover?
It covers professional and business ethics, codes of conduct, intellectual property rights (patents, copyright, trademarks), cyber law in India including the IT Act 2000, and ethical issues such as privacy, data security and plagiarism in the IT industry.
How should I use these MCQ sets?
Attempt every question before checking the answer, note the ones you get wrong, and revise those topics from your course notes. Then move to the next set in the series.
Are these questions from the actual exam?
No. They are practice questions written to match the course syllabus. Use them alongside your class material and previous papers.
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