Environment and Ecology MCQ Quiz for UPSC Prelims – PYQ Practice Test 2016-2025 (10 Sets, 143 Questions)

Environment and Ecology MCQ Quiz for UPSC Prelims – PYQ Practice Test 2016-2025 (10 Sets, 143 Questions) - CodingHumans

Practise the actual Environment and Ecology questions asked in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper I) from 2016 to 2025, arranged year by year as 10 sets (143 questions in all). Answers follow UPSC's official answer keys, options are kept in the order printed in the paper, and every question has a short explanation. Scoring follows the Prelims pattern: +2 for a correct answer and minus one-third of that (0.66) for a wrong one.

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All questions with answers and explanations

Prefer to read rather than take the test? Every question from the 10 sets is listed below with the correct answer and a short explanation, 143 questions in all. Open a set to see its questions. It works well for a quick revision the night before, or for checking a question you got wrong in the test above.

The questions are from the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination papers, and the answers follow the official answer keys released by UPSC. The explanations are our own.

Prelims 2025: 12 questions
  1. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

    • (a) The European Union
    • (b) The World Bank
    • (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    • (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

    Answer: (a) The European Union. The Nature Restoration Law is an EU regulation adopted in 2024. It sets legally binding targets for member states to restore degraded land and sea ecosystems.

  2. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

    • (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
    • (b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
    • (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
    • (d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

    Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide. Cloud seeding uses silver iodide, whose crystal structure is close to that of ice. Hygroscopic salts such as potassium iodide are also used. Both give nuclei around which droplets or ice can form and fall as rain.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
    Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
    Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    • (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    • (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    • (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Reusing and recycling materials cuts the extraction and processing of virgin raw materials, and designing out waste cuts disposal emissions. Both are ways the circular economy lowers greenhouse gas emissions, so both statements explain Statement I.

  4. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
    I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
    II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
    III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) I and II
    • (b) II only
    • (c) I and III
    • (d) None of the above statements is correct

    Answer: (b) II only. Ocean phytoplankton and cyanobacteria produce about half of Earth's oxygen, more than rainforests. Air is about 21% oxygen, which is far more than even well-oxygenated water holds, so only II is correct.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita.
    II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
    III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO2 emissions in India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) I and III only
    • (b) II only
    • (c) II and III only
    • (d) I, II and III

    Answer: (c) II and III only. India emits roughly 2 t CO2 per person, well above 0.5 t. In total fuel-combustion emissions India is second only to China in the Asia-Pacific, and coal-based power and heat generation is its largest emitting sector.

  6. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
    I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
    II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
    III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) I only
    • (b) I and III
    • (c) II only
    • (d) II and III

    Answer: (d) II and III. The Gooty tarantula is a spider (an arachnid that eats insects), not a crustacean. It is known only from a few forest patches in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, where it lives in tree holes.

  7. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
    Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
    Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    • (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    • (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    • (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I. The COP28 health declaration is voluntary and not legally binding, so Statement II is wrong. India held back because cutting emissions in its growing health sector could weaken care delivery, which is what Statement III says.

  8. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
    Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
    Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    • (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    • (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    • (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Article 6 covers both cooperative carbon-market approaches (6.2 and 6.4) and non-market approaches (6.8). Both roles explain why it comes up so often in climate negotiations.

  9. Consider the following:
    I. Cigarette butts
    II. Eyeglass lenses
    III. Car tyres
    How many of them contain plastic?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All the three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (c) All the three. Cigarette filters are made of cellulose acetate, eyeglass lenses are usually polycarbonate or other plastic resins, and tyres contain synthetic rubber polymers that shed microplastics. All three contain plastic.

  10. With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
    II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
    III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) I and II only
    • (b) III only
    • (c) I, II and III
    • (d) None of the above statements is correct

    Answer: (c) I, II and III. Direct Air Capture pulls CO2 straight from ambient air. The CO2 can be stored underground, used as a feedstock for plastics or food-grade gas, or combined with green hydrogen to make synthetic aviation fuel.

  11. Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

    • (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
    • (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    • (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
    • (d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

    Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB). The Asian Development Bank launched this hub in 2024 to draw public and private investment into nature-based solutions across Asia and the Pacific.

  12. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
    Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
    Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    • (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    • (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    • (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Activated carbon's very porous, high-surface-area structure lets it adsorb metals and organic pollutants. It can also be made cheaply from carbon-rich waste such as husks and shells, and both facts make it an attractive remediation tool.

Prelims 2024: 10 questions
Why this set looks different: UPSC asked only 9 environment and ecology questions in Prelims 2024. To give you a full practice set, we added 1 related question from the same 2024 paper, which also appears in our Geography PYQs. It is Q10 in this set, marked Related.
  1. 'Membrane Bioreactors' are often discussed in the context of:

    • (a) Assisted reproductive technologies
    • (b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
    • (c) Vaccine production technologies
    • (d) Wastewater treatment technologies

    Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies. A membrane bioreactor pairs biological treatment by microbes with membrane filtration. The result is high-quality treated effluent from sewage and industrial wastewater.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
    2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
    3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Lions can breed at any time of year, and cheetahs lack the vocal anatomy to roar (they purr and chirp). Male leopards do scent-mark their territories, so statement 3 is false.

  3. Consider the following:
    1. Carabid beetles
    2. Centipedes
    3. Flies
    4. Termites
    5. Wasps
    Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

    • (a) Only two
    • (b) Only three
    • (c) Only four
    • (d) All five

    Answer: (b) Only three. Parasitoids lay eggs in or on a host that the larvae eventually kill. This habit occurs in wasps, many flies (such as tachinids) and some carabid beetles, but not in centipedes or termites.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. Butterflies
    2. Fish
    3. Frogs
    How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (c) All three. Monarch butterflies store plant toxins, pufferfish carry tetrodotoxin, and poison dart frogs secrete toxins through their skin. All three groups therefore include poisonous species.

  5. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

    • (a) Fig
    • (b) Mahua
    • (c) Sandalwood
    • (d) Silk cotton

    Answer: (a) Fig. Fig trees and fig wasps are a classic case of obligate mutualism. Each fig species depends on its own wasp to pollinate its enclosed flowers, and the wasp breeds only inside the fig.

  6. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:
    1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
    2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
    3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. PFAS are called 'forever chemicals' because their carbon-fluorine bonds resist breakdown. They are now found in water, food and packaging, and they build up in the tissues of animals and people.

  7. The organisms 'Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater' are:

    • (a) Birds
    • (b) Fish
    • (c) Insects
    • (d) Reptiles

    Answer: (c) Insects. Cicadas and froghoppers are true bugs (Hemiptera) that feed on plant sap. Pond skaters are also hemipteran insects, which walk on the surface film of water.

  8. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
    Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    • (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    • (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Modern gum bases are made of synthetic polymers similar to plastics, so discarded gum does not biodegrade and sticks around as litter. That is exactly why gum counts as a pollutant.

  9. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

    • (a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
    • (b) Ships using fossil fuels
    • (c) Extraction of metals from ores
    • (d) Power plants using fossil fuels

    Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels. The US EPA identifies the burning of fossil fuels, especially sulphur-bearing coal, at power plants and other industrial facilities as the largest source of SO2.

  10. Related · also in Geography One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

    • (a) Amazon Basin
    • (b) Congo Basin
    • (c) Kikori Basin
    • (d) Rio de la Plata Basin

    Answer: (b) Congo Basin. The Cuvette Centrale peatlands of the Congo Basin form the world's largest tropical peatland complex. They store about 29 billion tonnes of carbon, roughly three years of global fossil-fuel emissions.

Prelims 2023: 14 questions
  1. Consider the following:
    1. Aerosols
    2. Foam agents
    3. Fire retardants
    4. Lubricants
    In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) Only three
    • (d) All four

    Answer: (c) Only three. HFCs are used as aerosol propellants, foam-blowing agents and fire suppressants, as well as refrigerants. They are not used to make lubricants.

  2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
    1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
    2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
    3. They are omnivorous.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (b) Only two. Indian palm and giant squirrels nest in trees, not in burrows. They do bury or cache nuts and seeds, and they eat insects and eggs as well as plant food, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  3. Consider the following fauna:
    1. Lion-tailed Macaque
    2. Malabar Civet
    3. Sambar Deer
    How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (a) Only one. The lion-tailed macaque is active by day. The Malabar civet is nocturnal, while the sambar is mainly crepuscular, most active at dawn and dusk. Only the civet is counted as nocturnal.

  4. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

    • (a) Fishing cat
    • (b) Orangutan
    • (c) Otter
    • (d) Sloth bear

    Answer: (b) Orangutan. Orangutans are well-known tool users. They strip and shape sticks to fish insects, honey and seeds out of tree holes and logs.

  5. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:
    1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
    2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
    3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (b) Only two. Biofilters host nitrifying bacteria that turn toxic ammonia into less harmful nitrate, and they help break down organic waste such as uneaten feed. They do not add phosphorus for fish.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
    Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Marsupials occur naturally only in Australasia and the Americas, not in India. They live in forests, deserts and grasslands, including places with predators, so Statement-II is false.

  7. 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

    • (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
    • (b) The United Nations Environment Programme
    • (c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
    • (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

    Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature. The ISSG is a network of experts under the IUCN Species Survival Commission. It maintains the Global Invasive Species Database.

  8. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: According to the 'United Nations World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
    Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. India is the largest user of groundwater, taking over a quarter of global withdrawals. Nearly 90% of that goes to irrigation, so the reason given in Statement-II (drinking water and sanitation) is wrong.

  9. Consider the following activities:
    1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
    2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
    3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
    How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (c) All three. Enhanced rock weathering with basalt, ocean alkalinity enhancement with lime, and geological storage of captured CO2 are all proposed ways to remove or lock away atmospheric carbon.

  10. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
    Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Carbon pricing through markets is expected to be widely used to cut emissions. When governments auction permits or levy carbon prices, money does flow from firms to the State, but that transfer is not why markets are so widespread.

  11. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
    1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
    2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
    3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) All three
    • (d) None

    Answer: (b) Only two. Artisanal gold mining and coal combustion are the two biggest human sources of mercury emissions. Health agencies set tolerable intake limits for mercury, so the absolute claim in statement 3 was treated as incorrect.

  12. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

    • (a) Butterflies
    • (b) Dragonflies
    • (c) Honeybees
    • (d) Wasps

    Answer: (c) Honeybees. Forager honeybees perform a figure-of-eight waggle dance. The angle of the dance shows the direction of the food relative to the sun, and the length of the waggle shows the distance.

  13. Consider the following statements:
    1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of Nagoya Protocol.
    2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Under the Biological Diversity Act, BMCs are consulted on access to local bioresources and benefit sharing, which is what the Nagoya Protocol is about. They may also levy collection fees within their area.

  14. Consider the following statements:
    Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
    1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
    2. hunting is not allowed in such area
    3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
    4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    • (a) Only one
    • (b) Only two
    • (c) Only three
    • (d) All four

    Answer: (b) Only two. A community reserve is run by a management committee drawn from the local community, not by the Chief Wildlife Warden. Hunting is banned there, while collecting non-timber forest produce for bona fide needs is allowed.

Prelims 2022: 16 questions
  1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
    1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
    2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
    3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 1 and 3
    • (d) 3 only

    Answer: (b) 2 only. A protected species gets the same legal protection wherever it is found. Wild animals are government property only in specific cases under the Act, and capture or killing needs actual danger and the Chief Wildlife Warden's permission, not mere apprehension.

  2. Consider the following pairs:
    Wetland/Lake : Location
    1. Hokera Wetland : Punjab
    2. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Rudrasagar Lake : Tripura
    4. Sasthamkotta Lake : Tamil Nadu
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    • (a) Only one pair
    • (b) Only two pairs
    • (c) Only three pairs
    • (d) All four pairs

    Answer: (b) Only two pairs. Renuka is in Himachal Pradesh and Rudrasagar is in Tripura. Hokera is in Jammu and Kashmir and Sasthamkotta is in Kerala, so only two pairs match.

  3. "Climate Action Tracker" which tracks the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

    • (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
    • (b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
    • (c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
    • (d) Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

    Answer: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis run by research groups (Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute). It is not a UN or IPCC body.

  4. "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
    1. Reduced seed requirement
    2. Reduced methane production
    3. Reduced electricity consumption
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. SRI transplants single young seedlings, so it needs much less seed. Avoiding continuous flooding cuts methane from anaerobic soil and also cuts the pumping, and so the electricity, needed for irrigation.

  5. Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?

    • (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
    • (b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
    • (c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
    • (d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

    Answer: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound. Greenwashing is misleading marketing that makes a company or product look more environmentally friendly than it really is.

  6. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
    1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
    2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
    3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
    4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1, 3 and 4
    • (b) 1 and 4 only
    • (c) 2, 3 and 4
    • (d) 1 and 2 only

    Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only. The 2021 WHO guidelines set PM2.5 limits of 15 µg/m³ (24-hour) and 5 µg/m³ (annual), and ozone aggravates asthma. Ozone peaks in sunny, hot weather, and it is the finer PM2.5 rather than PM10 that can enter the bloodstream.

  7. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

    • (a) Cotton
    • (b) Rice
    • (c) Sugarcane
    • (d) Wheat

    Answer: (b) Rice. Flooded paddy soils are anaerobic, so microbes there produce methane. Heavy nitrogen fertiliser use and wet-dry cycles in rice fields also release nitrous oxide.

  8. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

    • (a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
    • (b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
    • (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
    • (d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

    Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas. Akira Miyawaki's technique densely plants many native species in small plots. This grows fast, self-sustaining mini forests, often in cities.

  9. Consider the following:
    1. Carbon monoxide
    2. Nitrogen oxide
    3. Ozone
    4. Sulphur dioxide
    Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?

    • (a) 1, 2 and 3
    • (b) 2 and 4 only
    • (c) 4 only
    • (d) 1, 3 and 4

    Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water vapour to form sulphuric and nitric acids, which fall as acid rain. CO and ozone do not form these acids directly.

  10. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?

    • (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
    • (b) Development of building materials using plant residues
    • (c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
    • (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

    Answer: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs. Biorock passes a low-voltage current through a steel frame underwater, which deposits limestone on it. Coral fragments attached to the frame grow faster, which helps restore damaged reefs.

  11. Consider the following statements:
    1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
    2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
    3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
    4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
    5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
    • (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only. The Climate Group is a non-profit that runs business and government networks. It launched EP100 with the Alliance to Save Energy (not the IEA), and Indian firms such as Mahindra are members. The Climate Group itself, not the IEA, is the Under2 Coalition secretariat.

  12. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

    • (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
    • (b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
    • (c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
    • (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

    Answer: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.. Kidneys filter waste from blood. Wetlands do the same for water, as their plants and sediments trap excess nutrients and absorb heavy metals and other pollutants.

  13. Which of the following is not a bird?

    • (a) Golden Mahseer
    • (b) Indian Nightjar
    • (c) Spoonbill
    • (d) White Ibis

    Answer: (a) Golden Mahseer. The golden mahseer is a large freshwater fish of Himalayan rivers. The nightjar, spoonbill and ibis are all birds.

  14. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
    1. Alfalfa
    2. Amaranth
    3. Chickpea
    4. Clover
    5. Purslane (Kulfa)
    6. Spinach
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    • (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
    • (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

    Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only. Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes, whose root nodules hold Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen. Amaranth, purslane and spinach are not legumes.

  15. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

    • (a) Central Water Commission
    • (b) Central Ground Water Board
    • (c) Central Ground Water Authority
    • (d) National Water Development Agency

    Answer: (c) Central Ground Water Authority. The Central Ground Water Authority was set up under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act to regulate groundwater extraction. The other bodies were created by executive resolutions.

  16. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
    1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
    2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
    3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
    4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 3
    • (b) 2 and 4
    • (c) 1 and 4
    • (d) 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 3. PET (polyester) fibres are blended with cotton and wool, and PET bottles are widely recycled into fibre and new containers. It is not suitable for every alcoholic drink, and burning it releases CO2.

Prelims 2021: 15 questions
  1. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
    1. Copepods
    2. Cyanobacteria
    3. Diatoms
    4. Foraminifera
    Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

    • (a) 1 and 2
    • (b) 2 and 3
    • (c) 3 and 4
    • (d) 1 and 4

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3. Cyanobacteria and diatoms photosynthesise and form the base of marine food chains. Copepods and foraminifera are consumers that feed on other organisms.

  2. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
    1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
    2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
    3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Copper ores are mostly sulphides, so smelting them gives off large amounts of SO2, and the slag can leach heavy metals. Lethal carbon monoxide release is not a typical concern.

  3. Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
    1. Cnidarians
    2. Fungi
    3. Protozoa
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Corals (cnidarians) host zooxanthellae algae, fungi form mycorrhizae and lichens, and protozoa in termite guts digest cellulose. All three groups form symbioses.

  4. 'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

    • (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
    • (b) ecological management of 'Wetlands of International Importance' under the Ramsar Convention
    • (c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
    • (d) 'Environmental Impact Assessment' in the exploitation of natural resources

    Answer: (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry. R2 (Responsible Recycling) is a certification standard for electronics recyclers. It covers safe handling of e-waste, data security and worker protection.

  5. Consider the following animals:
    1. Hedgehog
    2. Marmot
    3. Pangolin
    To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?

    • (a) 1 and 2
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1 and 3. Hedgehogs curl into a spiny ball and pangolins roll into an armour of scales. Marmots instead flee into burrows and give alarm calls.

  6. Which of the following are detritivores?
    1. Earthworms
    2. Jellyfish
    3. Millipedes
    4. Seahorses
    5. Woodlice
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
    • (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
    • (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only. Earthworms, millipedes and woodlice eat decaying organic matter. Jellyfish and seahorses are predators of small animals.

  7. In the case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?

    • (a) Carbon cycle
    • (b) Nitrogen cycle
    • (c) Phosphorus cycle
    • (d) Sulphur cycle

    Answer: (c) Phosphorus cycle. Phosphorus has no major gaseous phase. It enters ecosystems mainly when phosphate rocks weather, making it a classic sedimentary cycle.

  8. With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests', which of the following statements are correct?
    1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
    2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
    3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
    4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
    5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1, 2 and 4
    • (b) 1, 3 and 5
    • (c) 3 and 4
    • (d) 2 and 5

    Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4. The declaration came out of the 2014 UN Climate Summit. It aims to halve forest loss by 2020 and end it by 2030, and it is a voluntary pledge backed by governments, companies and indigenous groups. India did not sign it.

  9. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

    • (a) Catfish
    • (b) Octopus
    • (c) Oyster
    • (d) Pelican

    Answer: (c) Oyster. Oysters draw water over their gills and strain out plankton and organic particles, which makes them classic filter feeders.

  10. The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for

    • (a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
    • (b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
    • (c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
    • (d) assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

    Answer: (a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. The Common Carbon Metric was developed by UNEP's Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative. It gives a consistent way to measure energy use and emissions from operating buildings.

  11. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
    1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
    2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
    3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
    4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 3
    • (b) 1, 2 and 4
    • (c) 4 only
    • (d) 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4. Permaculture uses diverse plantings and mulching, and it avoids the salinity build-up linked to chemical inputs and heavy irrigation. It is in fact well suited to dry, semi-arid land, so statement 3 is wrong.

  12. In the context of India's preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
    1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
    2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
    3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's research centres.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Climate-Smart Villages are a CCAFS initiative, and CCAFS runs under CGIAR, whose System Organization is based in Montpellier, France. ICRISAT in Hyderabad is a CGIAR research centre.

  13. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?
    1. Brakes of motor vehicles
    2. Engines of motor vehicles
    3. Microwave stoves within homes
    4. Power plants
    5. Telephone lines
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    • (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    • (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only. Magnetite nanoparticles come from high-temperature combustion and friction, such as vehicle engines, brake wear and power plants. Microwaves and telephone lines do not emit them.

  14. What is blue carbon?

    • (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
    • (b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
    • (c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
    • (d) Carbon present in atmosphere

    Answer: (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems. Blue carbon is the carbon stored by ocean and coastal ecosystems, especially mangroves, salt marshes and seagrass meadows.

  15. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a product of oil refineries.
    2. Some industries use it to generate power.
    3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Furnace oil is a heavy residual fuel from crude oil refining. Industries burn it in boilers and generators, and its high sulphur content releases SO2.

Prelims 2020: 15 questions
  1. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
    1. Crop diversification
    2. Legume intensification
    3. Tensiometer use
    4. Vertical farming
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 4 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Crop diversification improves soil health and resilience, legumes fix nitrogen and cut fertiliser use, and tensiometers schedule irrigation precisely to save water. Vertical farming was not counted as an eco-friendly field practice in the Indian context.

  2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
    1. Automobile exhaust
    2. Tobacco smoke
    3. Wood burning
    4. Using varnished wooden furniture
    5. Using products made of polyurethane
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 and 4 only
    • (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Benzene is released by incomplete combustion, as in vehicle exhaust, cigarette smoke and burning wood. Varnished furniture and polyurethane products were not treated as typical sources.

  3. Which one of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is the estimate, in monetary value, of the

    • (a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
    • (b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
    • (c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
    • (d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

    Answer: (a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.. The social cost of carbon is the money value of all future damage, to health, crops, property and so on, caused by emitting one extra tonne of CO2 in a given year.

  4. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?
    1. Nagarhole National Park
    2. Papikonda National Park
    3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
    4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only. Nagarhole, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad are drained by Cauvery tributaries such as the Kabini and Bhavani. Papikonda lies on the Godavari in Andhra Pradesh.

  5. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

    • (a) Kanha National Park
    • (b) Manas National Park
    • (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
    • (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

    Answer: (a) Kanha National Park. Kanha in Madhya Pradesh holds the hard-ground barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi), which grazes on grasses. Conservation there brought it back from near extinction.

  6. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

    • (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
    • (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
    • (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
    • (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

    Answer: (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.. Schedule VI (as it stood in 2020) listed specified plants such as red vanda and pitcher plant. Cultivating, collecting or trading them required a licence from the Chief Wildlife Warden.

  7. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?
    1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
    2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
    3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Zero-till drills such as the Happy Seeder sow wheat straight into rice stubble, so the residue need not be burnt. Rice can be direct-seeded without a nursery, and leaving soil undisturbed builds up soil organic carbon.

  8. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:
    1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
    2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
    3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
    4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 4 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Elephant herds are led by the oldest female (the matriarch), and gestation lasts up to about 22 months. Cows can calve until about 60, and Karnataka, not Kerala, has the most elephants.

  9. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
    1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
    2. Gangotri National Park
    3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
    4. Manas National Park
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 and 4 only
    • (d) 1 and 4 only

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Musk deer live in high-altitude Himalayan forests and scrub, such as Askot and Gangotri in Uttarakhand. Kishanpur (in the terai) and Manas (in the foothill grasslands) are too low.

  10. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
    1. Copper slag
    2. Cold mix asphalt technology
    3. Geotextiles
    4. Hot mix asphalt technology
    5. Portland cement
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    • (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 4 and 5 only
    • (d) 1 and 5 only

    Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Copper slag reuses an industrial waste, cold-mix asphalt needs no heating, and geotextiles (often jute or coir) strengthen roads with fewer materials. Hot-mix asphalt and Portland cement are energy- and carbon-intensive.

  11. What is the use of biochar in farming?
    1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
    2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
    3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Biochar is porous charcoal from biomass. It can be part of soilless growing media, its pores hold water, and it gives a home to beneficial microbes, including nitrogen fixers.

  12. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are

    • (a) Birds
    • (b) Primates
    • (c) Reptiles
    • (d) Amphibians

    Answer: (a) Birds. All four are birds. The frogmouth is a nocturnal bird of the Western Ghats, and the barbet, minivet and redstart are well-known Indian birds.

  13. With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
    1. It is spread over two districts.
    2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
    3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Desert National Park covers parts of Jaisalmer and Barmer districts and is a key refuge of the Great Indian Bustard. Several villages lie inside it.

  14. Consider the following statements:
    1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
    2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
    3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Fly ash concentrates toxic metals such as arsenic, lead and mercury, and burning coal releases SO2 and NOx. Indian coal is known for its high ash content, often 30-45%.

  15. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger Habitat"?

    • (a) Corbett
    • (b) Ranthambore
    • (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
    • (d) Sunderbans

    Answer: (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam is India's largest tiger reserve, and its core or critical tiger habitat of about 2,600 sq km is bigger than that of the other options.

Prelims 2019: 17 questions
  1. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

    • (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
    • (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
    • (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
    • (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

    Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.. The 2016 Rules set detailed site-selection criteria for landfills and processing facilities. They require segregation into three streams (not five), and they apply beyond notified urban areas.

  2. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

    • (a) pesticides in agriculture
    • (b) preservatives in processed foods
    • (c) fruit-ripening agents
    • (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

    Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture. These are highly toxic organophosphate and carbamate insecticides used on crops. Several have been banned or restricted because of poisoning risks.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
    2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
    3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 3 only. The Ramsar Convention binds parties only to the wise use of listed sites, not to protect every wetland, and the 2010 Rules were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act. The Rules do extend to the wetland's catchment as the authority decides.

  4. Consider the following pairs:
    Wildlife : Naturally found in
    1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
    2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
    3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. The blue-finned (hump-backed) mahseer is native to the Cauvery, and the rusty-spotted cat occurs in the Eastern Ghats. Irrawaddy dolphins live in coastal lagoons such as Chilika, not in the Chambal.

  5. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

    • (a) Manas National Park
    • (b) Namdapha National Park
    • (c) Neora Valley National Park
    • (d) Valley of Flowers National Park

    Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park. The Valley of Flowers lies at about 3,200 to 6,700 m in the Garhwal Himalaya, entirely in the temperate-alpine belt. The others extend down into tropical or subtropical zones.

  6. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

    • (a) anti-malarial drug
    • (b) biodiesel
    • (c) pulp for paper industry
    • (d) textile fibre

    Answer: (d) textile fibre. The long, strong bast fibres of the Himalayan nettle are spun into eco-friendly textiles, which gives hill communities a livelihood.

  7. Consider the following statements:
    1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
    2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
    3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 2 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Fertilised soils emit nitrogen oxides through microbial processes, cattle dung and urine release ammonia, and poultry waste releases ammonia and other reactive nitrogen. All three statements are true.

  8. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

    • (a) Extraction of rare earth elements
    • (b) Natural gas extraction technologies
    • (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
    • (d) Waste-to-energy technologies

    Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies. Pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen, and plasma gasification breaks it down at very high temperatures. Both turn solid waste into fuel gas, oil or char.

  9. Consider the following:
    1. Carbon monoxide
    2. Methane
    3. Ozone
    4. Sulphur dioxide
    Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 1 and 4 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Burning crop residue gives off CO, methane and SO2, and its NOx and hydrocarbons produce ozone in the smoke plume. So all four end up in the air when residue is burnt.

  10. Consider the following statements:
    1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
    2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The CAF Act, 2016 sets up CAMPA authorities at both national and state levels. It does not make people's participation in afforestation mandatory.

  11. Consider the following statements:
    The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
    1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
    2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Section 3 of the Act lets the Centre set emission and discharge standards. Public participation (such as hearings) comes from EIA notifications issued under the Act, not from the Act itself.

  12. In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

    • (a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
    • (b) The Recycled Plastic Manufacturing and Usage Rules, 1999
    • (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
    • (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

    Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. The e-Waste Rules of 2011 first made producers responsible for collecting and safely handling their electronic products at end of life.

  13. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

    • (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
    • (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
    • (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
    • (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

    Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, on the southern tip of the Western Ghats, includes Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney in Kerala and Kalakad-Mundanthurai in Tamil Nadu.

  14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'?
    1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
    2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
    3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Methane hydrates are ice-like deposits in permafrost and seabed sediments that can break down as they warm. Released methane lasts about a decade in the air before it oxidises to CO2.

  15. Consider the following statements:
    1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
    2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
    3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Wild Asiatic lions survive only in the Gir landscape of Gujarat. Bactrian camels are native to Central Asia (India has a small population in Nubra), and one-horned rhinos also live in Nepal.

  16. Consider the following statements:
    1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
    2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
    3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
    4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 3 only
    • (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 2 and 4 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Green sea turtles graze on seagrass, parrotfish and many reef fish eat algae, and dugongs and manatees are herbivorous marine mammals. Some snakes, such as boas and some vipers, bear live young.

  17. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment?

    • (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
    • (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
    • (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
    • (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

    Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.. Microbeads from cosmetics pass through sewage treatment into the sea. There they are swallowed by plankton, fish and shellfish, carrying adsorbed toxins up the food chain.

Prelims 2018: 12 questions
  1. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
    1. Hard and waxy leaves
    2. Tiny leaves
    3. Thorns instead of leaves
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 2 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Waxy cuticles, smaller leaf area and leaves reduced to spines all cut transpiration. All three are common adaptations of desert plants.

  2. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
    1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
    2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Both bodies are statutory. The NGT was set up under the NGT Act, 2010, and the CPCB under the Water Act, 1974, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 correctly describes their roles.

  3. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
    1. Decreased salinity in the river
    2. Pollution of groundwater
    3. Lowering of the water-table
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Sand acts as an aquifer and filter, so removing it lowers the water table and lets pollutants reach groundwater. It tends to increase salinity, for example through saltwater intrusion, rather than decrease it.

  4. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

    • (a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
    • (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
    • (c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
    • (d) None of the above

    Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.. Prosopis juliflora (vilayati babul) is an aggressive invasive shrub. It crowds out native vegetation, depletes groundwater and lowers local biodiversity.

  5. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
    2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
    3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 2 only. GACSA was launched at the 2014 UN Climate Summit in New York and is a voluntary alliance with no binding obligations. India was not a driving force behind it.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
    2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
    3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Forest Rights Act defines critical wildlife habitat, and the Baigas of Madhya Pradesh were the first community to get habitat rights. Those rights are recognised through the FRA process run by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and state machinery, not by MoEFCC.

  7. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

    • (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
    • (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
    • (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
    • (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

    Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. PAGE was launched in 2013 in response to the call at Rio+20 (2012) to support countries pursuing green economy policies.

  8. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?

    • (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    • (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    • (c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    • (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

    Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Higher CO2 levels speed up photosynthesis in many plants, so they grow more. This response is called the CO2 or carbon fertilization effect.

  9. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

    • (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
    • (b) The UNEP Secretariat
    • (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
    • (d) The World Meteorological Organisation

    Answer: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat. Climate Neutral Now was launched by the UNFCCC secretariat in 2015 under its Momentum for Change programme. It encourages people and organisations to measure, cut and offset their emissions.

  10. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

    • (a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
    • (b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
    • (c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
    • (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

    Answer: (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.. Scientists say a sixth mass extinction is under way, driven by human activity: habitat loss, overexploitation, pollution and climate change, not a natural catastrophe.

  11. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
    1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
    2. Adopting minimum tillage
    3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
    4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
    5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1, 3 and 4
    • (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
    • (c) 2, 4 and 5
    • (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

    Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5. Conservation agriculture rests on three principles: minimal soil disturbance, permanent soil cover with residues, and crop diversification through rotations. Avoiding plantation crops is not one of them.

  12. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

    • (a) Arunachal Pradesh
    • (b) Manipur
    • (c) Meghalaya
    • (d) Nagaland

    Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh. Pakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is in East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for hornbill conservation.

Prelims 2017: 13 questions
  1. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

    • (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
    • (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
    • (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
    • (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

    Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems. BOD measures how much dissolved oxygen microbes use to break down organic matter in water. A high BOD signals heavy organic pollution.

  2. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
    1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
    2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
    3. Subterranean deep saline formations
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Captured CO2 can be stored in unmineable coal seams, where it adsorbs onto the coal, in depleted oil and gas fields, and in deep saline aquifers. All three are recognised geological storage options.

  3. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
    1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
    2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (b) 2 only. TRAFFIC is a non-governmental network set up by WWF and IUCN, not a UNEP bureau. Its mission is to keep trade in wild species from threatening conservation.

  4. With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
    2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
    3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The GCCA is a European Union initiative, run by the European Commission, that helps poor and vulnerable countries build climate change into their development planning. WRI and WBCSD coordinate the GHG Protocol, not the GCCA.

  5. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
    1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
    2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
    3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Butterflies pollinate many plants and are food for predators such as birds, spiders and parasitic wasps. They do not control fungal diseases of crops.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
    2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (b) 2 only. The CCAC was launched in 2012 by UNEP with a handful of countries, not by the G20. It targets short-lived climate pollutants: methane, black carbon, HFCs and tropospheric ozone.

  7. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

    • (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
    • (b) Nallamala Forest
    • (c) Nagarhole National Park
    • (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

    Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve. Sathyamangalam in Tamil Nadu lies where the Western and Eastern Ghats meet. It forms a corridor for elephants and tigers between the two ranges.

  8. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
    1. Gharial
    2. Indian wild ass
    3. Wild buffalo
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are Schedule I animals. Hunting them is banned except in narrow circumstances the Act allows, such as a threat to human life or scientific purposes with a permit.

  9. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
    1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
    2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
    3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Bioremediation boosts natural microbial breakdown of pollutants, and engineered microbes can be designed for specific contaminants. Heavy metals cannot be destroyed, though, so they are not readily or completely treated this way.

  10. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

    • (a) Corbett National Park
    • (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
    • (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
    • (d) Sariska National Park

    Answer: (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary. Kuno-Palpur in Madhya Pradesh was chosen as a second home for Asiatic lions, so that the whole population would not be at risk in the Gir landscape alone.

  11. The term 'M-STRIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    • (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
    • (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
    • (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
    • (d) Security of National Highways

    Answer: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves. M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is an app-based patrolling and monitoring tool the NTCA uses in tiger reserves.

  12. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

    • (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
    • (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
    • (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
    • (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

    Answer: (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.. Schedule I gives the highest level of legal protection, the same as for the tiger. Listing says nothing about whether a species is extinct in the wild or endemic.

  13. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

    • (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
    • (b) Chambal River
    • (c) Pulicat Lake
    • (d) Deepor Beel

    Answer: (b) Chambal River. The National Chambal Sanctuary, across Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, holds most of the world's wild gharials.

Prelims 2016: 19 questions
  1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Carbon monoxide
    3. Nitrogen dioxide
    4. Sulfur dioxide
    5. Methane
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    • (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    • (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
    • (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only. India's National AQI covers eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and lead. CO2 and methane are not included.

  2. With reference to an initiative called 'The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)', which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
    2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
    3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only. TEEB is hosted by UNEP, not the IMF or WEF. It highlights the economic value of nature and gives decision-makers ways to recognise and capture that value.

  3. What is/are the importance/importances of the 'United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification'?
    1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.
    2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
    3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. The UNCCD works through national action programmes and partnerships and stresses participation by local communities. Its special focus is Africa, not South Asia and North Africa.

  4. What is/are unique about 'Kharai camel', a breed found in India?
    1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
    2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
    3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Kharai camel of Kutch can swim long distances between mangrove islands and feeds on mangroves. It is a domesticated breed herded by Rabari and Jat pastoralists.

  5. The FAO accords the status of 'Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)' to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?
    1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
    2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
    3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varied agricultural produce of such identified GIAHS
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 2 only. GIAHS aims to recognise and conserve traditional farming systems along with their landscapes, agrobiodiversity and local knowledge. It does not modernise them or grant GI tags.

  6. 'Gadgil Committee Report' and 'Kasturirangan Committee Report', sometimes seen in the news, are related to

    • (a) constitutional reforms
    • (b) Ganga Action Plan
    • (c) linking of rivers
    • (d) protection of Western Ghats

    Answer: (d) protection of Western Ghats. Both committees were set up to recommend how to conserve the Western Ghats, including which areas should be declared ecologically sensitive.

  7. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
    2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
    3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 3 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (b) 2 only. The Paris Agreement aims to hold warming well below 2°C and pursue 1.5°C. It entered into force in November 2016 without every UN member signing, and the finance goal was $100 billion a year, not $1000 billion.

  8. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as 'State Butterfly'?

    • (a) Arunachal Pradesh
    • (b) Himachal Pradesh
    • (c) Karnataka
    • (d) Maharashtra

    Answer: (d) Maharashtra. In 2015 Maharashtra became the first Indian state to name a state butterfly, the Blue Mormon (Papilio polymnestor).

  9. The term 'Intended Nationally Determined Contributions' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    • (a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
    • (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
    • (c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
    • (d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

    Answer: (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change. INDCs were the climate action plans countries submitted before COP21 in Paris. They became Nationally Determined Contributions once the Paris Agreement was ratified.

  10. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the 'Great Indian Hornbill' in its natural habitat?

    • (a) Sand deserts of northwest India
    • (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
    • (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
    • (d) Western Ghats

    Answer: (d) Western Ghats. The Great Hornbill lives in tall evergreen forests, mainly in the Western Ghats, the Himalayan foothills and the North-East. Deserts, salt marshes and high cold mountains do not suit it.

  11. Which of the following are the key features of 'National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)'?
    1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
    2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
    3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The NGRBA took the whole river basin as the unit of planning and led national river conservation for the Ganga. It was chaired by the Prime Minister, with chief ministers of basin states as members.

  12. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India?
    1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting'
    2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
    3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 3 only. The Green India Mission, one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, aims to protect, restore and expand forest cover as both mitigation and adaptation.

  13. What is 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol'?

    • (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
    • (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies
    • (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
    • (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

    Answer: (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions. The GHG Protocol, developed by WRI and WBCSD, is the most widely used standard for measuring and reporting greenhouse gas emissions by companies and governments.

  14. Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
    1. Reduction in weed
    2. Reduction in soil salinity
    3. Reduction in soil erosion
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 1 and 3 only
    • (d) None of the above is an advantage of practising drip irrigation

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Drip irrigation wets only the root zone, so fewer weeds grow and less soil is eroded by runoff. It does not by itself reduce salinity, and salts can collect at the edge of the wetted zone.

  15. With reference to 'Agenda 21', sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
    2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan for sustainable development adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. The 2002 Johannesburg summit only reviewed its implementation.

  16. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome'.
    2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (b) 2 only. The SDGs emerged from the Rio+20 process (2012), proposed by Colombia and Guatemala, and were adopted in 2015 with a 2030 deadline. The Club of Rome is known for its 1972 report 'The Limits to Growth'.

  17. Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
    1. protection of biodiversity
    2. resilience of forest ecosystems
    3. poverty reduction
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 3 only
    • (c) 2 and 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. By paying for reduced deforestation and better forest management, REDD+ protects biodiversity, makes forests more resilient and can bring income to forest-dependent communities.

  18. With reference to 'Red Sanders', sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
    2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • (a) 1 only
    • (b) 2 only
    • (c) Both 1 and 2
    • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is endemic to the dry deciduous forests of the southern Eastern Ghats, mainly in Andhra Pradesh. It is not a rainforest tree.

  19. Consider the following pairs:
    Terms sometimes seen in news : Their origin
    1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol
    2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
    3. Clean Development Mechanism : Kyoto Protocol
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    • (a) 1 and 2 only
    • (b) 2 and 3 only
    • (c) 3 only
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: (c) 3 only. Annex-I countries come from the UNFCCC (and its Kyoto Protocol), and CERs are credits issued under the Kyoto Protocol's CDM. Cartagena deals with biosafety and Nagoya with access and benefit sharing, so only pair 3 matches.

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